Full SAT Biology Practice Test 1: Part B

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Question 20 questions

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1. Which situation describes an incidence of artificial selection acting upon a single population?

A. Weak prey animals successfully hunted by predators
B. Excessive rains providing additional water resources
C. Males choosing the healthiest females to reproduce with
D. An early warm front resulting in premature plant blooming
E. Insecticides eliminating all crop pests except resistant individuals

2. The following change is an example of which type of mutation?

Original DNA sequence: ATGGA-AGC

New DNA sequence: ATTGACAGC

I. Point mutation

II. Deletion

III. Frameshift

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

3. With a limited amount of chemical substrate, all of the following factors could directly affect an enzyme's activity EXCEPT

A. pH level
B. inhibitors
C. temperature
D. enzyme cofactors
E. enzyme concentration

4. The loop of Henle is a structure within the urinary tract responsible for reabsorbing water. Compared to a terrestrial species, how might this structure appear in a freshwater aquatic species?

A. Absent
B. Longer
C. Shorter
D. Withered
E. Thinner

5. The coyote, Canis latrans, belongs to each of the taxonomic groups in the answer choices below. Which group's members are most closely related to each other?

A. Order Carnivora
B. Class Mammalia
C. Subfamily Vertebrata
D. Family Canidae
E. Phylum Chordata

6. Terrestrial snakes and aquatic eels have a similar elongated morphology. However, they are not closely related evolutionarily. Their resemblance is an example of

A. analogy
B. homology
C. speciation
D. divergent evolution
E. artificial selection

7. Edward's syndrome is the result of an additional 18th chromosome present in a fertilized embryo. Which of the following events could lead to the presence of this additional chromosome in a zygote?

A. Crossing over in meiosis I
B. Nondisjunction in meiosis II
C. A deletion during meiosis II
D. A deletion during meiosis I
E. Replication error in meiosis II

8. The steps of protein synthesis and modification take place in several different locations throughout the cell. What is the proper order of these locations, from start to finish?

I. Ribosome

II. Nucleus

III. Golgi apparatus

IV. Endoplasmic reticulum

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, I, IV, III
C. III, II, IV, I
D. II, I, III, IV
E. IV, III, II, I

9. A somatic cell of the common octopus (Octopus vulgaris) has 56 chromosomes. What number of chromosomes will an octopus gamete contain?

A. 14
B. 28
C. 56
D. 112
E. 168

10. A genetic mutation results in a DNA sequence that continues to synthesize the same protein, at the same rate as a nonmutated sequence. This mutation would be BEST classified as a

A. deletion
B. insertion
C. missense mutation
D. nonsense mutation
E. silent mutation

11. A unicellular prokaryote belongs to which kingdom?

A. Animalia
B. Eubacteria
C. Fungi
D. Plantae
E. Protista

12. Which of the following organisms has the highest evolutionary fitness?

A. A cheetah that catches the most prey
B. A fox that successfully avoids predators
C. A tortoise that has lived for over 100 years
D. A wolf that recovers quickly from a wound
E. A gorilla that reproduces several times

13. Flowering plants are divided into two subgroups, monocots and dicots. These groups differ significantly in all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

A. seed structure
B. floral parts
C. leaf venation
D. stomata structure
E. vascular organization

14. An organism produces many offspring each reproductive season, only a few of which survive.

The survivorship curve for this organism can BEST be described as

A. closely matching curve 1
B. closely matching curve 2
C. closely matching curve 3
D. fitting between curves 1 and 2
E. fitting between curves 2 and 3

15. An association between two organisms in which one benefits and neither is harmed is called

A. commensalism
B. mutualism
C. parasitism
D. predation
E. omnivory

16. Centrifugation is a laboratory technique used to separate materials by their relative masses. More massive substances will sink to the bottom of a test tube while those with less mass will float to the top. A cell culture is centrifuged. Which cellular organelle would be concentrated at the top of the centrifuged mixture?

A. Nuclei
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Ribosomes
E. Membrane-bound proteins

17. Which of the following shows the proper order of blood flow through the heart, entering from the vena cava?

A. Left atrium → left ventricle → right ventricle → right atrium
B. Left ventricle → left atrium → right atrium → right ventricle
C. Right atrium → right ventricle → left atrium → left ventricle
D. Right ventricle → right atrium → left atrium → left ventricle
E. Right ventricle → right atrium → left ventricle → left atrium

18. What would happen to a blood cell moved from an isotonic solution to a hypertonic solution?

A. The cell would swell.
B. The cell would shrivel up.
C. The cell would immediately lyse.
D. The cell membrane would be reinforced.
E. Nothing; the cell would be in equilibrium.

19. Triticale is a hybrid of wheat (Triticum turgidum) and rye (Secale cereale), bred to demonstrate the most desirable characteristics of both species. The resulting hybrid possesses four chromosome sets from the maternal wheat plant and two sets from the paternal rye plant. What is the ploidy of these hybrids?

A. Diploid (2n)
B. Triploid (3n)
C. Tetraploid (4n)
D. Hexaploid (6n)
E. Octoploid (8n)

20. A group of biologists wishes to isolate an antifreeze gene found in a cold-water species of fish and introduce it into the genome of a different organism. Which of the following techniques must they use?

A. Cloning
B. Artificial selection
C. Selective breeding
D. Genetic engineering
E. Sexual recombination